HCPCS Level II
HCPCS Level II 2014 code changes
Every HCPCS Level II code whose CMS add date or termination date falls in 2014, grouped by effective date. Each code's own page carries its full record.
280
Added
1
Deleted
For HCPCS Level II, MedCoder records each code's CMS add date and termination date from the alpha-numeric file. A deletion is listed on the first day the code is no longer valid (the day after its CMS termination date). Description revisions between quarterly files are not recorded as changes.
Added effective January 1, 2014 (248)
- A4555 — Electrode/transducer for use with electrical stimulation device used for cancer treatment, replacement only
- A7047 — Oral interface used with respiratory suction pump, each
- A9520 — Technetium tc-99m tilmanocept, diagnostic, up to 0.5 millicuries
- A9575 — Injection, gadoterate meglumine, 0.1 ml
- A9599 — Radiopharmaceutical, diagnostic, for beta-amyloid positron emission tomography (pet) imaging, per study dose, not otherwise specified
- C5271 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; first 25 sq cm or less wound surface area
- C5272 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; each additional 25 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)
- C5273 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; first 100 sq cm wound surface area, or 1% of body area of infants and children
- C5274 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; each additional 100 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof, or each additional 1% of body area of infants and children, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)
- C5275 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; first 25 sq cm or less wound surface area
- C5276 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; each additional 25 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)
- C5277 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; first 100 sq cm wound surface area, or 1% of body area of infants and children
- C5278 — Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; each additional 100 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof, or each additional 1% of body area of infants and children, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)
- C9133 — Factor ix (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), rixubis, per i.u.
- C9441 — Injection, ferric carboxymaltose, 1 mg
- C9497 — Loxapine, inhalation powder, 10 mg
- C9737 — Laparoscopy, surgical, esophageal sphincter augmentation with device (e.g., magnetic band)
- E0766 — Electrical stimulation device used for cancer treatment, includes all accessories, any type
- E1352 — Oxygen accessory, flow regulator capable of positive inspiratory pressure
- G0461 — Immunohistochemistry or immunocytochemistry, per specimen; first single or multiplex antibody stain
- G0462 — Immunohistochemistry or immunocytochemistry, per specimen; each additional single or multiplex antibody stain (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)
- G0463 — Hospital outpatient clinic visit for assessment and management of a patient
- G9188 — Beta-blocker therapy not prescribed, reason not given
- G9189 — Beta-blocker therapy prescribed or currently being taken
- G9190 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing beta-blocker therapy (eg, allergy, intolerance, other medical reasons)
- G9191 — Documentation of patient reason(s) for not prescribing beta-blocker therapy (eg, patient declined, other patient reasons)
- G9192 — Documentation of system reason(s) for not prescribing beta-blocker therapy (eg, other reasons attributable to the health care system)
- G9193 — Clinician documented that patient with a diagnosis of major depression was not an eligible candidate for antidepressant medication treatment or patient did not have a diagnosis of major depression
- G9194 — Patient with a diagnosis of major depression documented as being treated with antidepressant medication during the entire 180 day (6 month) continuation treatment phase
- G9195 — Patient with a diagnosis of major depression not documented as being treated with antidepressant medication during the entire 180 day (6 months) continuation treatment phase
- G9196 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not ordering a first or second generation cephalosporin for antimicrobial prophylaxis (e.g., patients enrolled in clinical trials, patients with documented infection prior to surgical procedure of interest, patients who were receiving antibiotics more than 24 hours prior to surgery [except colon surgery patients taking oral prophylactic antibiotics], patients who were receiving antibiotics within 24 hours prior to arrival [except colon surgery patients taking oral prophylactic antibiotics], other medical reason(s))
- G9197 — Documentation of order for first or second generation cephalosporin for antimicrobial prophylaxis
- G9198 — Order for first or second generation cephalosporin for antimicrobial prophylaxis was not documented, reason not given
- G9199 — Venous thromboembolism (vte) prophylaxis not administered the day of or the day after hospital admission for documented reasons (eg, patient is ambulatory, patient expired during inpatient stay, patient already on warfarin or another anticoagulant, other medical reason(s) or eg, patient left against medical advice, other patient reason(s))
- G9200 — Venous thromboembolism (vte) prophylaxis was not administered the day of or the day after hospital admission, reason not given
- G9201 — Venous thromboembolism (vte) prophylaxis administered the day of or the day after hospital admission
- G9202 — Patients with a positive hepatitis c antibody test
- G9203 — Rna testing for hepatitis c documented as performed within 12 months prior to initiation of antiviral treatment for hepatitis c
- G9204 — Rna testing for hepatitis c was not documented as performed within 12 months prior to initiation of antiviral treatment for hepatitis c, reason not given
- G9205 — Patient starting antiviral treatmentfor hepatitis c during the measurement period
- G9206 — Patient starting antiviral treatment for hepatitis c during the measurement period
- G9207 — Hepatitis c genotype testing documented as performed within 12 months prior to initiation of antiviral treatment for hepatitis c
- G9208 — Hepatitis c genotype testing was not documented as performed within 12 months prior to initiation of antiviral treatment for hepatitis c, reason not given
- G9209 — Hepatitis c quantitative rna testing documented as performed between 4-12 weeks after the initiation of antiviral treatment
- G9210 — Hepatitis c quantitative rna testing not performed between 4-12 weeks after the initiation of antiviral treatment for documented reason(s) (e.g., patients whose treatment was discontinued during the testing period prior to testing, other medical reasons, patient declined, other patient reasons)
- G9211 — Hepatitis c quantitative rna testing was not documented as performed between 4-12 weeks after the initiation of antiviral treatment, reason not given
- G9212 — Dsm-ivtm criteria for major depressive disorder documented at the initial evaluation
- G9213 — Dsm-iv-tr criteria for major depressive disorder not documented at the initial evaluation, reason not otherwise specified
- G9214 — Cd4+ cell count or cd4+ cell percentage results documented
- G9215 — Cd4+ cell count or percentage not documented as performed, reason not given
- G9216 — Pcp prophylaxis was not prescribed at time of diagnosis of hiv, reason not given
- G9217 — Pcp prophylaxis was not prescribed within 3 months of low cd4+ cell count below 200 cells/mm3, reason not given
- G9218 — Pcp prophylaxis was not prescribed within 3 months oflow cd4+ cell count below 500 cells/mm3 or a cd4 percentage below 15%, reason not given
- G9219 — Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia prophylaxis not prescribed within 3 months of low cd4+ cell count below 200 cells/mm3 for medical reason (i.e., patient's cd4+ cell count above threshold within 3 months after cd4+ cell count below threshold, indicating that the patient's cd4+ levels are within an acceptable range and the patient does not require pcp prophylaxis)
- G9220 — Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia prophylaxis not prescribed within 3 months of low cd4+ cell count below 500 cells/mm3 or a cd4 percentage below 15% for medical reason (i.e., patient's cd4+ cell count above threshold within 3 months after cd4+ cell count below threshold, indicating that the patient's cd4+ levels are within an acceptable range and the patient does not require pcp prophylaxis)
- G9221 — Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia prophlaxis prescribed
- G9222 — Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia prophylaxis prescribed wthin 3 months of low cd4+ cell count below 200 cells/mm3
- G9223 — Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia prophylaxis prescribed within 3 months of low cd4+ cell count below 500 cells/mm3 or a cd4 percentage below 15%
- G9224 — Documentation of medical reason for not performing foot exam (e.g., patient with bilateral foot/leg amputation)
- G9225 — Foot exam was not performed, reason not given
- G9226 — Foot examination performed (includes examination through visual inspection, sensory exam with 10-g monofilament plus testing any one of the following: vibration using 128-hz tuning fork, pinprick sensation, ankle reflexes, or vibration perception threshold, and pulse exam; report when all of the 3 components are completed)
- G9227 — Functional outcome assessment documented, care plan not documented, documentation the patient is not eligible for a care plan at the time of the encounter
- G9228 — Chlamydia, gonorrhea and syphilis screening results documented (report when results are present for all of the 3 screenings)
- G9229 — Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis screening results not documented (patient refusal is the only allowed exception)
- G9230 — Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis not screened, reason not given
- G9231 — Documentation of end stage renal disease (esrd), dialysis, renal transplant before or during the measurement period or pregnancy during the measurement period
- G9232 — Clinician treating major depressive disorder did not communicate to clinician treating comorbid condition for specified patient reason (e.g., patient is unable to communicate the diagnosis of a comorbid condition; the patient is unwilling to communicate the diagnosis of a comorbid condition; or the patient is unaware of the comorbid condition, or any other specified patient reason)
- G9233 — All quality actions for the applicable measures in the total knee replacement measures group have been performed for this patient
- G9234 — I intend to report the total knee replacement measures group
- G9235 — All quality actions for the applicable measures in the general surgery measures group have been performed for this patient
- G9236 — All quality actions for the applicable measures in the optimizing patient exposure to ionizing radiation measures group have been performed for this patient
- G9237 — I intend to report the general surgery measures group
- G9238 — I intend to report the optimizing patient exposure to ionizing radiation measures group
- G9239 — Documentation of reasons for patient initiating maintenance hemodialysis with a catheter as the mode of vascular access (e.g., patient has a maturing arteriovenous fistula (avf)/arteriovenous graft (avg), time-limited trial of hemodialysis, other medical reasons, patient declined avf/avg, other patient reasons, patient followed by reporting nephrologist for fewer than 90 days, other system reasons)
- G9240 — Patient whose mode of vascular access is a catheter at the time maintenance hemodialysis is initiated
- G9241 — Patient whose mode of vascular access is not a catheter at the time maintenance hemodialysis is initiated
- G9242 — Documentation of viral load equal to or greater than 200 copies/ml or viral load not performed
- G9243 — Documentation of viral load less than 200 copies/ml
- G9244 — Antiretroviral thereapy not prescribed
- G9245 — Antiretroviral therapy prescribed
- G9246 — Patient did not have two eligible encounters at least 90 days apart or one eligible encounter and one hiv viral load test at least 90 days apart
- G9247 — Patient had two eligible encounters at least 90 days apart or one eligible encounter and one hiv viral load test at least 90 days apart
- G9248 — Patient did not have a medical visit in the last 6 months
- G9249 — Patient had a medical visit in the last 6 months
- G9250 — Documentation of patient pain brought to a comfortable level within 48 hours from initial assessment
- G9251 — Documentation of patient with pain not brought to a comfortable level within 48 hours from initial assessment
- G9252 — Adenoma(s) or other neoplasm detected during screening colonoscopy
- G9253 — Adenoma(s) or other neoplasm not detected during screening colonoscopy
- G9254 — Documentation of patient discharged to home later than post-operative day 2 following cea or cas
- G9255 — Documentation of patient discharged to home no later than post operative day 2 following cea or cas
- G9256 — Documentation of patient death following cas
- G9257 — Documentation of patient stroke following cas
- G9258 — Documentation of patient stroke following cea
- G9259 — Documentation of patient survival and absence of stroke following cas
- G9260 — Documentation of patient death following cea
- G9261 — Documentation of patient survival and absence of stroke following cea
- G9262 — Documentation of patient death in the hospital following endovascular aaa repair
- G9263 — Documentation of patient discharged alive following endovascular aaa repair
- G9264 — Documentation of patient receiving maintenance hemodialysis for greater than or equal to 90 days with a catheter for documented reasons (e.g., other medical reasons, patient declined arteriovenous fistula (avf)/arteriovenous graft (avg), other patient reasons)
- G9265 — Patient receiving maintenance hemodialysis for greater than or equal to 90 days with a catheter as the mode of vascular access
- G9266 — Patient receiving maintenance hemodialysis for greater than or equal to 90 days without a catheter as the mode of vascular access
- G9267 — Documentation of patient with one or more complications or mortality within 30 days
- G9268 — Documentation of patient with one or more complications within 90 days
- G9269 — Documentation of patient without one or more complications and without mortality within 30 days
- G9270 — Documentation of patient without one or more complications within 90 days
- G9271 — Ldl value < 100
- G9272 — Ldl value >= 100
- G9273 — Blood pressure has a systolic value of < 140 and a diastolic value of < 90
- G9274 — Blood pressure has a systolic value of =140 and a diastolic value of = 90 or systolic value < 140 and diastolic value = 90 or systolic value = 140 and diastolic value < 90
- G9275 — Documentation that patient is a current non-tobacco user
- G9276 — Documentation that patient is a current tobacco user
- G9277 — Documentation that the patient is on daily aspirin or anti-platelet or has documentation of a valid contraindication or exception to aspirin/anti-platelet; contraindications/exceptions include anti-coagulant use, allergy to aspirin or anti-platelets, history of gastrointestinal bleed and bleeding disorder; additionally, the following exceptions documented by the physician as a reason for not taking daily aspirin or anti-platelet are acceptable (use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, documented risk for drug interaction, uncontrolled hypertension defined as >180 systolic or >110 diastolic or gastroesophageal reflux)
- G9278 — Documentation that the patient is not on daily aspirin or anti-platelet regimen
- G9279 — Pneumococcal screening performed and documentation of vaccination received prior to discharge
- G9280 — Pneumococcal vaccination not administered prior to discharge, reason not specified
- G9281 — Screening performed and documentation that vaccination not indicated/patient refusal
- G9282 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not reporting the histological type or nsclc-nos classification with an explanation (e.g., biopsy taken for other purposes in a patient with a history of non-small cell lung cancer or other documented medical reasons)
- G9283 — Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report documents classification into specific histologic type or classified as nsclc-nos with an explanation
- G9284 — Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report does not document classification into specific histologic type or classified as nsclc-nos with an explanation
- G9285 — Specimen site other than anatomic location of lung or is not classified as non small cell lung cancer
- G9286 — Antibiotic regimen prescribed within 10 days after onset of symptoms
- G9287 — Antibiotic regimen not prescribed within 10 days after onset of symptoms
- G9288 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not reporting the histological type or nsclc-nos classification with an explanation (e.g., a solitary fibrous tumor in a person with a history of non-small cell carcinoma or other documented medical reasons)
- G9289 — Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report documents classification into specific histologic type or classified as nsclc-nos with an explanation
- G9290 — Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report does not document classification into specific histologic type or classified as nsclc-nos with an explanation
- G9291 — Specimen site other than anatomic location of lung, is not classified as non small cell lung cancer or classified as nsclc-nos
- G9292 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not reporting pt category and a statement on thickness and ulceration and for pt1, mitotic rate (e.g., negative skin biopsies in a patient with a history of melanoma or other documented medical reasons)
- G9293 — Pathology report does not include the pt category and a statement on thickness and ulceration and for pt1, mitotic rate
- G9294 — Pathology report includes the pt category and a statement on thickness and ulceration and for pt1, mitotic rate
- G9295 — Specimen site other than anatomic cutaneous location
- G9296 — Patients with documented shared decision-making including discussion of conservative (non-surgical) therapy (e.g., nsaids, analgesics, weight loss, exercise, injections) prior to the procedure
- G9297 — Shared decision-making including discussion of conservative (non-surgical) therapy (e.g., nsaids, analgesics, weight loss, exercise, injections) prior to the procedure, not documented, reason not given
- G9298 — Patients who are evaluated for venous thromboembolic and cardiovascular risk factors within 30 days prior to the procedure (e.g., history of dvt, pe, mi, arrhythmia and stroke)
- G9299 — Patients who are not evaluated for venous thromboembolic and cardiovascular risk factors within 30 days prior to the procedure (e.g., history of dvt, pe, mi, arrhythmia and stroke, reason not given)
- G9300 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not completely infusing the prophylactic antibiotic prior to the inflation of the proximal tourniquet (e.g., a tourniquet was not used)
- G9301 — Patients who had the prophylactic antibiotic completely infused prior to the inflation of the proximal tourniquet
- G9302 — Prophylactic antibiotic not completely infused prior to the inflation of the proximal tourniquet, reason not given
- G9303 — Operative report does not identify the prosthetic implant specifications including the prosthetic implant manufacturer, the brand name of the prosthetic implant and the size of each prosthetic implant, reason not given
- G9304 — Operative report identifies the prosthetic implant specifications including the prosthetic implant manufacturer, the brand name of the prosthetic implant and the size of each prosthetic implant
- G9305 — Intervention for presence of leak of endoluminal contents through an anastomosis not required
- G9306 — Intervention for presence of leak of endoluminal contents through an anastomosis required
- G9307 — No return to the operating room for a surgical procedure, for complications of the principal operative procedure, within 30 days of the principal operative procedure
- G9308 — Unplanned return to the operating room for a surgical procedure, for complications of the principal operative procedure, within 30 days of the principal operative procedure
- G9309 — No unplanned hospital readmission within 30 days of principal procedure
- G9310 — Unplanned hospital readmission within 30 days of principal procedure
- G9311 — No surgical site infection
- G9312 — Surgical site infection
- G9313 — Amoxicillin, with or without clavulanate, not prescribed as first line antibiotic at the time of diagnosis for documented reason
- G9314 — Amoxicillin, with or without clavulanate, not prescribed as first line antibiotic at the time of diagnosis, reason not given
- G9315 — Amoxicillin, with or without clavulanate, prescribed as a first line antibiotic at the time of diagnosis
- G9316 — Documentation of patient-specific risk assessment with a risk calculator based on multi-institutional clinical data, the specific risk calculator used, and communication of risk assessment from risk calculator with the patient or family
- G9317 — Documentation of patient-specific risk assessment with a risk calculator based on multi-institutional clinical data, the specific risk calculator used, and communication of risk assessment from risk calculator with the patient or family not completed
- G9318 — Imaging study named according to standardized nomenclature
- G9319 — Imaging study not named according to standardized nomenclature, reason not given
- G9320 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not naming ct studies according to a standardized nomenclature provided (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
- G9321 — Count of previous ct (any type of ct) and cardiac nuclear medicine (myocardial perfusion or infarct avid imaging) studies documented in the 12-month period prior to the current study
- G9322 — Count of previous ct and cardiac nuclear medicine (myocardial perfusion or infarct avid imaging) studies not documented in the 12-month period prior to the current study, reason not given
- G9323 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not counting previous ct and cardiac nuclear medicine (myocardial perfusion) studies (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
- G9324 — All necessary data elements not included, reason not given
- G9325 — Ct studies not reported to a radiation dose index registry due to medical reasons (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
- G9326 — Ct studies performed not reported to a radiation dose index registry that is capable of collecting at a minimum all necessary data elements, reason not given
- G9327 — Ct studies performed reported to a radiation dose index registry that is capable of collecting at a minimum all necessary data elements
- G9328 — Dicom format image data availability not documented in final report due to medical reasons (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
- G9329 — Dicom format image data available to non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities on a secure, media free, reciprocally searchable basis with patient authorization for at least a 12-month period after the study not documented in final report, reason not given
- G9340 — Final report documented that dicom format image data available to non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities on a secure, media free, reciprocally searchable basis with patient authorization for at least a 12-month period after the study
- G9341 — Search conducted for prior patient ct studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12-months and are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive prior to an imaging study being performed
- G9342 — Search not conducted prior to an imaging study being performed for prior patient ct studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12-months and are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive, reason not given
- G9343 — Due to medical reasons, search not conducted for dicom format images for prior patient ct imaging studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12 months that are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive (e.g., ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
- G9344 — Due to system reasons search not conducted for dicom format images for prior patient ct imaging studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12 months that are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive (e.g., non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities does not have archival abilities through a shared archival system)
- G9345 — Follow-up recommendations documented according to recommended guidelines for incidentally detected pulmonary nodules (e.g., follow-up ct imaging studies needed or that no follow-up is needed) based at a minimum on nodule size and patient risk factors
- G9346 — Follow-up recommendations not documented according to recommended guidelines for incidentally detected pulmonary nodules due to medical reasons (e.g., patients with known malignant disease, patients with unexplained fever, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
- G9347 — Follow-up recommendations not documented according to recommended guidelines for incidentally detected pulmonary nodules, reason not given
- G9348 — Ct scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered at the time of diagnosis for documented reasons
- G9349 — Ct scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered at the time of diagnosis or received within 28 days after date of diagnosis
- G9350 — Ct scan of the paranasal sinuses not ordered at the time of diagnosis or received within 28 days after date of diagnosis
- G9351 — More than one ct scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered or received within 90 days after diagnosis
- G9352 — More than one ct scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered or received within 90 days after the date of diagnosis, reason not given
- G9353 — More than one ct scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered or received within 90 days after the date of diagnosis for documented reasons (eg, patients with complications, second ct obtained prior to surgery, other medical reasons)
- G9354 — One ct scan or no ct scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered within 90 days after the date of diagnosis
- G9355 — Elective delivery (without medical indication) by cesarean birth or induction of labor not performed (<39 weeks of gestation)
- G9356 — Elective delivery (without medical indication) by cesarean birth or induction of labor performed (<39 weeks of gestation)
- G9357 — Post-partum screenings, evaluations and education performed
- G9358 — Post-partum screenings, evaluations and education not performed
- G9359 — Documentation of negative or managed positive tb screen with further evidence that tb is not active prior to treatment with a biologic immune response modifier
- G9360 — No documentation of negative or managed positive tb screen
- G9361 — Medical indication for delivery by cesarean birth or induction of labor (<39 weeks of gestation) [documentation of reason(s) for elective delivery (e.g., hemorrhage and placental complications, hypertension, preeclampsia and eclampsia, rupture of membranes (premature or prolonged), maternal conditions complicating pregnancy/delivery, fetal conditions complicating pregnancy/delivery, late pregnancy, prior uterine surgery, or participation in clinical trial)]
- J0151 — Injection, adenosine for diagnostic use, 1 mg (not to be used to report any adenosine phosphate compounds, instead use a9270)
- J0401 — Injection, aripiprazole (abilify maintena), 1 mg
- J0717 — Injection, certolizumab pegol, 1 mg (code may be used for medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)
- J1442 — Injection, filgrastim (g-csf), excludes biosimilars, 1 microgram
- J1446 — Injection, tbo-filgrastim, 5 micrograms
- J1556 — Injection, immune globulin (bivigam), 500 mg
- J1602 — Injection, golimumab, 1 mg, for intravenous use
- J3060 — Injection, taliglucerase alfa, 10 units
- J3489 — Injection, zoledronic acid, 1 mg
- J7301 — Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system (skyla), 13.5 mg
- J7316 — Injection, ocriplasmin, 0.125 mg
- J7508 — Tacrolimus, extended release, (astagraf xl), oral, 0.1 mg
- J9047 — Injection, carfilzomib, 1 mg
- J9262 — Injection, omacetaxine mepesuccinate, 0.01 mg
- J9306 — Injection, pertuzumab, 1 mg
- J9354 — Injection, ado-trastuzumab emtansine, 1 mg
- J9371 — Injection, vincristine sulfate liposome, 1 mg
- J9400 — Injection, ziv-aflibercept, 1 mg
- L0455 — Tlso, flexible, provides trunk support, extends from sacrococcygeal junction to above t-9 vertebra, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks with rigid stays or panel(s), includes shoulder straps and closures, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0457 — Tlso, flexible, provides trunk support, thoracic region, rigid posterior panel and soft anterior apron, extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks, includes straps and closures, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0467 — Tlso, sagittal control, rigid posterior frame and flexible soft anterior apron with straps, closures and padding, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral disks, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0469 — Tlso, sagittal-coronal control, rigid posterior frame and flexible soft anterior apron with straps, closures and padding, extends from sacrococcygeal junction over scapulae, lateral strength provided by pelvic, thoracic, and lateral frame pieces, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal and coronal planes, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral disks, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0641 — Lumbar orthosis, sagittal control, with rigid posterior panel(s), posterior extends from l-1 to below l-5 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0642 — Lumbar orthosis, sagittal control, with rigid anterior and posterior panels, posterior extends from l-1 to below l-5 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0643 — Lumbar-sacral orthosis, sagittal control, with rigid posterior panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to t-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0648 — Lumbar-sacral orthosis, sagittal control, with rigid anterior and posterior panels, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to t-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0649 — Lumbar-sacral orthosis, sagittal-coronal control, with rigid posterior frame/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to t-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panels, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0650 — Lumbar-sacral orthosis, sagittal-coronal control, with rigid anterior and posterior frame/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to t-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panel(s), produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L0651 — Lumbar-sacral orthosis, sagittal-coronal control, rigid shell(s)/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to t-9 vertebra, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to xyphoid, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, overall strength is provided by overlapping rigid material and stabilizing closures, includes straps, closures, may include soft interface, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L1812 — Knee orthosis, elastic with joints, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L1833 — Knee orthosis, adjustable knee joints (unicentric or polycentric), positional orthosis, rigid support, prefabricated, off-the shelf
- L1848 — Knee orthosis, double upright with adjustable joint, with inflatable air support chamber(s), prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L3678 — Shoulder orthosis, shoulder joint design, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L3809 — Wrist hand finger orthosis, without joint(s), prefabricated, off-the-shelf, any type
- L3916 — Wrist hand orthosis, includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L3918 — Hand orthosis, metacarpal fracture orthosis, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L3924 — Hand finger orthosis, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L3930 — Hand finger orthosis, includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), turnbuckles, elastic bands/springs, may include soft interface material, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L4361 — Walking boot, pneumatic and/or vacuum, with or without joints, with or without interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L4387 — Walking boot, non-pneumatic, with or without joints, with or without interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L4397 — Static or dynamic ankle foot orthosis, including soft interface material, adjustable for fit, for positioning, may be used for minimal ambulation, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- L5969 — Addition, endoskeletal ankle-foot or ankle system, power assist, includes any type motor(s)
- L8679 — Implantable neurostimulator, pulse generator, any type
- Q0161 — Chlorpromazine hydrochloride, 5 mg, oral, fda approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an iv anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen
- Q2028 — Injection, sculptra, 0.5 mg
- Q3027 — Injection, interferon beta-1a, 1 mcg for intramuscular use
- Q3028 — Injection, interferon beta-1a, 1 mcg for subcutaneous use
- Q4137 — Amnioexcel, amnioexcel plus or biodexcel, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4138 — Biodfence dryflex, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4139 — Amniomatrix or biodmatrix, injectable, 1 cc
- Q4140 — Biodfence, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4141 — Alloskin ac, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4142 — Xcm biologic tissue matrix, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4143 — Repriza, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4145 — Epifix, injectable, 1 mg
- Q4146 — Tensix, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4147 — Architect, architect px, or architect fx, extracellular matrix, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4148 — Neox cord 1k, neox cord rt, or clarix cord 1k, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
- Q4149 — Excellagen, 0.1 cc
- S9960 — Ambulance service, conventional air service, nonemergency transport, one way (fixed wing)
- S9961 — Ambulance service, conventional air service, nonemergency transport, one way (rotary wing)
- T4544 — Adult sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, above extra large, each
Added effective April 1, 2014 (5)
- C9021 — Injection, obinutuzumab, 10 mg
- C9739 — Cystourethroscopy, with insertion of transprostatic implant; 1 to 3 implants
- C9740 — Cystourethroscopy, with insertion of transprostatic implant; 4 or more implants
- G0471 — Collection of venous blood by venipuncture or urine sample by catheterization from an individual in a skilled nursing facility (snf) or by a laboratory on behalf of a home health agency (hha)
- Q2052 — Services, supplies and accessories used in the home for the administration of intravenous immune globulin (ivig)
Added effective June 2, 2014 (1)
- G0472 — Hepatitis c antibody screening, for individual at high risk and other covered indication(s)
Added effective July 1, 2014 (12)
- C2644 — Brachytherapy source, cesium-131 chloride solution, per millicurie
- C9022 — Injection, elosulfase alfa, 1mg
- C9134 — Factor xiii (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), tretten, per 10 i.u.
- Q9970 — Injection, ferric carboxymaltose, 1mg
- Q9972 — Injection, epoetin beta, 1 microgram, (for esrd on dialysis)
- Q9973 — Injection, epoetin beta, 1 microgram, (non-esrd use)
- Q9974 — Injection, morphine sulfate, preservative-free for epidural or intrathecal use, 10 mg
- S0144 — Injection, propofol, 10 mg
- S1034 — Artificial pancreas device system (e.g., low glucose suspend (lgs) feature) including continuous glucose monitor, blood glucose device, insulin pump and computer algorithm that communicates with all of the devices
- S1035 — Sensor; invasive (e.g., subcutaneous), disposable, for use with artificial pancreas device system
- S1036 — Transmitter; external, for use with artificial pancreas device system
- S1037 — Receiver (monitor); external, for use with artificial pancreas device system
Deleted effective July 1, 2014 (1)
- C9441 — Injection, ferric carboxymaltose, 1 mg
Added effective October 1, 2014 (13)
- C9023 — Injection, testosterone undecanoate, 1 mg
- C9025 — Injection, ramucirumab, 5 mg
- C9026 — Injection, vedolizumab, 1 mg
- C9135 — Factor ix (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), alprolix, per i.u.
- C9741 — Right heart catheterization with implantation of wireless pressure sensor in the pulmonary artery, including any type of measurement, angiography, imaging supervision, interpretation, and report
- G0466 — Federally qualified health center (fqhc) visit, new patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face encounter (one-on-one) between a new patient and a fqhc practitioner during which time one or more fqhc services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a fqhc visit
- G0467 — Federally qualified health center (fqhc) visit, established patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face encounter (one-on-one) between an established patient and a fqhc practitioner during which time one or more fqhc services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a fqhc visit
- G0468 — Federally qualified health center (fqhc) visit, ippe or awv; a fqhc visit that includes an initial preventive physical examination (ippe) or annual wellness visit (awv) and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving an ippe or awv
- G0469 — Federally qualified health center (fqhc) visit, mental health, new patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face mental health encounter (one-on-one) between a new patient and a fqhc practitioner during which time one or more fqhc services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a mental health visit
- G0470 — Federally qualified health center (fqhc) visit, mental health, established patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face mental health encounter (one-on-one) between an established patient and a fqhc practitioner during which time one or more fqhc services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a mental health visit
- K0901 — Knee orthosis (ko), single upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- K0902 — Knee orthosis (ko), double upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, prefabricated, off-the-shelf
- S8032 — Low-dose computed tomography for lung cancer screening
Added effective October 9, 2014 (1)
- G0464 — Colorectal cancer screening; stool-based dna and fecal occult hemoglobin (e.g., kras, ndrg4 and bmp3)
Source: CMS HCPCS Level II alpha-numeric file (add and termination dates).
Source data
- Source organization
- CMS
- Source release
- HCPCS Level II October 2026 alpha-numeric file
- Source file
- october-2026-alpha-numeric-hcpcs-file.zip
- File checksum (SHA-256)
- c25240c63108756d4ba6c0ea785c517117d83bfed9526c51da8acf123de1feb6
- Data read date
- Data not available in the current MedCoder release record.
- Effective date
- CMS effective dates within 2014
- Release type
- Quarterly (January, April, July, October), with occasional mid-quarter additions
- Methodology
- Each code's add date and termination date are read from the alpha-numeric file. A deletion is dated the first day the code is no longer valid, the day after its termination date. Description revisions are not recorded as changes.
These changes are based on recorded release data. MedCoder does not generate coding changes with AI.