Skip to main content

HCPCS Level II

HCPCS Level II 2016 code changes

Every HCPCS Level II code whose CMS add date or termination date falls in 2016, grouped by effective date. Each code's own page carries its full record.

274
Added
117
Deleted

For HCPCS Level II, MedCoder records each code's CMS add date and termination date from the alpha-numeric file. A deletion is listed on the first day the code is no longer valid (the day after its CMS termination date). Description revisions between quarterly files are not recorded as changes.

Added effective January 1, 2016 (228)

  • A4337 — Incontinence supply, rectal insert, any type, each
  • C1822 — Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), high frequency, with rechargeable battery and charging system
  • C2645 — Brachytherapy planar source, palladium-103, per square millimeter
  • C9458 — Florbetaben f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 8.1 millicuries
  • C9459 — Flutemetamol f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 5 millicuries
  • C9460 — Injection, cangrelor, 1 mg
  • E0465 — Home ventilator, any type, used with invasive interface, (e.g., tracheostomy tube)
  • E0466 — Home ventilator, any type, used with non-invasive interface, (e.g., mask, chest shell)
  • E1012 — Wheelchair accessory, addition to power seating system, center mount power elevating leg rest/platform, complete system, any type, each
  • G0477 — Drug test(s), presumptive, any number of drug classes; any number of devices or procedures, (e.g., immunoassay) capable of being read by direct optical observation only (e.g., dipsticks, cups, cards, cartridges), includes sample validation when performed, per date of service
  • G0478 — Drug test(s), presumptive, any number of drug classes; any number of devices or procedures, (e.g., immunoassay) read by instrument-assisted direct optical observation (e.g., dipsticks, cups, cards, cartridges), includes sample validation when performed, per date of service
  • G0479 — Drug test(s), presumptive, any number of drug classes; any number of devices or procedures by instrumented chemistry analyzers utilizing immunoassay, enzyme assay, tof, maldi, ldtd, desi, dart, ghpc, gc mass spectrometry), includes sample validation when performed, per date of service
  • G0480 — Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to gc/ms (any type, single or tandem) and lc/ms (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., ia, eia, elisa, emit, fpia) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 1-7 drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed
  • G0481 — Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to gc/ms (any type, single or tandem) and lc/ms (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., ia, eia, elisa, emit, fpia) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 8-14 drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed
  • G0482 — Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to gc/ms (any type, single or tandem) and lc/ms (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., ia, eia, elisa, emit, fpia) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 15-21 drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed
  • G0483 — Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to gc/ms (any type, single or tandem) and lc/ms (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., ia, eia, elisa, emit, fpia) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 22 or more drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed
  • G0498 — Chemotherapy administration, intravenous infusion technique; initiation of infusion in the office/clinic setting using office/clinic pump/supplies, with continuation of the infusion in the community setting (e.g., home, domiciliary, rest home or assisted living) using a portable pump provided by the office/clinic, includes follow up office/clinic visit at the conclusion of the infusion
  • G9473 — Services performed by chaplain in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes
  • G9474 — Services performed by dietary counselor in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes
  • G9475 — Services performed by other counselor in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes
  • G9476 — Services performed by volunteer in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes
  • G9477 — Services performed by care coordinator in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes
  • G9478 — Services performed by other qualified therapist in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes
  • G9479 — Services performed by qualified pharmacist in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes
  • G9480 — Admission to medicare care choice model program (mccm)
  • G9496 — Documentation of reason for not detecting adenoma(s) or other neoplasm. (e.g., neoplasm detected is only diagnosed as traditional serrated adenoma, sessile serrated polyp, or sessile serrated adenoma
  • G9497 — Received instruction from the anesthesiologist or proxy prior to the day of surgery to abstain from smoking on the day of surgery
  • G9498 — Antibiotic regimen prescribed
  • G9499 — Patient did not start or is not receiving antiviral treatment for hepatitis c during the measurement period
  • G9500 — Radiation exposure indices documented in final report for procedure using fluoroscopy
  • G9501 — Radiation exposure indices not documented in final report for procedure using fluoroscopy, reason not given
  • G9502 — Documentation of medical reason for not performing foot exam (i.e., patients who have had either a bilateral amputation above or below the knee, or both a left and right amputation above or below the knee before or during the measurement period)
  • G9503 — Patient taking tamsulosin hydrochloride
  • G9504 — Documented reason for not assessing hepatitis b virus (hbv) status (e.g., patient not initiating anti-tnf therapy, patient declined) prior to initiating anti-tnf therapy
  • G9505 — Antibiotic regimen prescribed within 10 days after onset of symptoms for documented medical reason
  • G9506 — Biologic immune response modifier prescribed
  • G9507 — Documentation that the patient is on a statin medication or has documentation of a valid contraindication or exception to statin medications; contraindications/exceptions that can be defined by diagnosis codes include pregnancy during the measurement period, active liver disease, rhabdomyolysis, end stage renal disease on dialysis and heart failure; provider documented contraindications/exceptions include breastfeeding during the measurement period, woman of child-bearing age not actively taking birth control, allergy to statin, drug interaction (hiv protease inhibitors, nefazodone, cyclosporine, gemfibrozil, and danazol) and intolerance (with supporting documentation of trying a statin at least once within the last 5 years or diagnosis codes for myostitis or toxic myopathy related to drugs)
  • G9508 — Documentation that the patient is not on a statin medication
  • G9509 — Adult patients 18 years of age or older with major depression or dysthymia who reached remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than 5
  • G9510 — Adult patients 18 years of age or older with major depression or dysthymia who did not reach remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than 5. either phq- 9 or phq-9m score was not assessed or is greater than or equal to 5
  • G9511 — Index event date phq-9 or phq-9m score greater than 9 documented during the twelve month denominator identification period
  • G9512 — Individual had a pdc of 0.8 or greater
  • G9513 — Individual did not have a pdc of 0.8 or greater
  • G9514 — Patient required a return to the operating room within 90 days of surgery
  • G9515 — Patient did not require a return to the operating room within 90 days of surgery
  • G9516 — Patient achieved an improvement in visual acuity, from their preoperative level, within 90 days of surgery
  • G9517 — Patient did not achieve an improvement in visual acuity, from their preoperative level, within 90 days of surgery, reason not given
  • G9518 — Documentation of active injection drug use
  • G9519 — Patient achieves final refraction (spherical equivalent) +/- 1.0 diopters of their planned refraction within 90 days of surgery
  • G9520 — Patient does not achieve final refraction (spherical equivalent) +/- 1.0 diopters of their planned refraction within 90 days of surgery
  • G9521 — Total number of emergency department visits and inpatient hospitalizations less than two in the past 12 months
  • G9522 — Total number of emergency department visits and inpatient hospitalizations equal to or greater than two in the past 12 months or patient not screened, reason not given
  • G9523 — Patient discontinued from hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis
  • G9524 — Patient was referred to hospice care
  • G9525 — Documentation of patient reason(s) for not referring to hospice care (e.g., patient declined, other patient reasons)
  • G9526 — Patient was not referred to hospice care, reason not given
  • G9529 — Patient with minor blunt head trauma had an appropriate indication(s) for a head ct
  • G9530 — Patient presented with a minor blunt head trauma and had a head ct ordered for trauma by an emergency care provider
  • G9531 — Patient has documentation of ventricular shunt, brain tumor, multisystem trauma, or is currently taking an antiplatelet medication including: abciximab, anagrelide, cangrelor, cilostazol, clopidogrel, dipyridamole, eptifibatide, prasugrel, ticlopidine, ticagrelor, tirofiban, or vorapaxar
  • G9532 — Patient had a head ct for trauma ordered by someone other than an emergency care provider or was ordered for a reason other than trauma
  • G9533 — Patient with minor blunt head trauma did not have an appropriate indication(s) for a head ct
  • G9534 — Advanced brain imaging (cta, ct, mra or mri) was not ordered
  • G9535 — Patients with a normal neurological examination
  • G9536 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for ordering an advanced brain imaging study (i.e., patient has an abnormal neurological examination; patient has the coexistence of seizures, or both; recent onset of severe headache; change in the type of headache; signs of increased intracranial pressure (e.g., papilledema, absent venous pulsations on funduscopic examination, altered mental status, focal neurologic deficits, signs of meningeal irritation); hiv-positive patients with a new type of headache; immunocompromised patient with unexplained headache symptoms; patient on coagulopathy/anti-coagulation or anti-platelet therapy; very young patients with unexplained headache symptoms)
  • G9537 — Imaging needed as part of a clinical trial; or other clinician ordered the study
  • G9538 — Advanced brain imaging (cta, ct, mra or mri) was ordered
  • G9539 — Intent for potential removal at time of placement
  • G9540 — Patient alive 3 months post procedure
  • G9541 — Filter removed within 3 months of placement
  • G9542 — Documented re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal within 3 months of placement
  • G9543 — Documentation of at least two attempts to reach the patient to arrange a clinical re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal within 3 months of placement
  • G9544 — Patients that do not have the filter removed, documented re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal, or documentation of at least two attempts to reach the patient to arrange a clinical re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal within 3 months of placement
  • G9547 — Cystic renal lesion that is simple appearing (bosniak i or ii) , or adrenal lesion less than or equal to 1.0 cm or adrenal lesion greater than 1.0 cm but less than or equal to 4.0 cm classified as likely benign by unenhanced ct or washout protocol ct, or mri with in- and opposed-phase sequences or other equivalent institutional imaging protocols
  • G9548 — Final reports for imaging studies stating no follow-up imaging is recommended
  • G9549 — Documentation of medical reason(s) that follow-up imaging is indicated (e.g., patient has lymphadenopathy, signs of metastasis or an active diagnosis or history of cancer, and other medical reason(s))
  • G9550 — Final reports for imaging studies with follow-up imaging recommended, or final reports that do not include a specific recommendation of no follow-up
  • G9551 — Final reports for imaging studies without an incidentally found lesion noted
  • G9552 — Incidental thyroid nodule < 1.0 cm noted in report
  • G9553 — Prior thyroid disease diagnosis
  • G9554 — Final reports for ct, cta, mri or mra of the chest or neck with follow-up imaging recommended
  • G9555 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for recommending follow up imaging (e.g., patient has multiple endocrine neoplasia, patient has cervical lymphadenopathy, other medical reason(s))
  • G9556 — Final reports for ct, cta, mri or mra of the chest or neck with follow-up imaging not recommended
  • G9557 — Final reports for ct, cta, mri or mra studies of the chest or neck without an incidentally found thyroid nodule < 1.0 cm noted or no nodule found
  • G9558 — Patient treated with a beta-lactam antibiotic as definitive therapy
  • G9559 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing a beta-lactam antibiotic (e.g., allergy, intolerance to beta-lactam antibiotics)
  • G9560 — Patient not treated with a beta-lactam antibiotic as definitive therapy, reason not given
  • G9561 — Patients prescribed opiates for longer than six weeks
  • G9562 — Patients who had a follow-up evaluation conducted at least every three months during opioid therapy
  • G9563 — Patients who did not have a follow-up evaluation conducted at least every three months during opioid therapy
  • G9572 — Index date phq-score greater than 9 documented during the twelve month denominator identification period
  • G9573 — Adult patients 18 years of age or older with major depression or dysthymia who did not reach remission at six months as demonstrated by a six month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than five
  • G9574 — Adult patients 18 years of age or older with major depression or dysthymia who did not reach remission at six months as demonstrated by a six month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than five; either phq-9 or phq-9m score was not assessed or is greater than or equal to five
  • G9577 — Patients prescribed opiates for longer than six weeks
  • G9578 — Documentation of signed opioid treatment agreement at least once during opioid therapy
  • G9579 — No documentation of signed an opioid treatment agreement at least once during opioid therapy
  • G9580 — Door to puncture time of 90 minutes or less
  • G9581 — Door to puncture time of greater than 2 hours for reasons documented by clinician (e.g., patients who are transferred from one institution to another with a known diagnosis of cva for endovascular stroke treatment; hospitalized patients with newly diagnosed cva considered for endovascular stroke treatment)
  • G9582 — Door to puncture time of greater than 90 minutes, no reason given
  • G9583 — Patients prescribed opiates for longer than six weeks
  • G9584 — Patient evaluated for risk of misuse of opiates by using a brief validated instrument (e.g., opioid risk tool, soapp-r) or patient interviewed at least once during opioid therapy
  • G9585 — Patient not evaluated for risk of misuse of opiates by using a brief validated instrument (e.g., opioid risk tool, soapp-r) or patient not interviewed at least once during opioid therapy
  • G9593 — Pediatric patient with minor blunt head trauma classified as low risk according to the pecarn prediction rules
  • G9594 — Patient presented with a minor blunt head trauma and had a head ct ordered for trauma by an emergency care provider
  • G9595 — Patient has documentation of ventricular shunt, brain tumor, or coagulopathy
  • G9596 — Pediatric patient had a head ct for trauma ordered by someone other than an emergency care provider or was ordered for a reason other than trauma
  • G9597 — Pediatric patient with minor blunt head trauma not classified as low risk according to the pecarn prediction rules
  • G9598 — Aortic aneurysm 5.5 - 5.9 cm maximum diameter on centerline formatted ct or minor diameter on axial formatted ct
  • G9599 — Aortic aneurysm 6.0 cm or greater maximum diameter on centerline formatted ct or minor diameter on axial formatted ct
  • G9600 — Symptomatic aaas that required urgent/emergent (non-elective) repair
  • G9601 — Patient discharge to home no later than post-operative day #7
  • G9602 — Patient not discharged to home by post-operative day #7
  • G9603 — Patient survey score improved from baseline following treatment
  • G9604 — Patient survey results not available
  • G9605 — Patient survey score did not improve from baseline following treatment
  • G9606 — Intraoperative cystoscopy performed to evaluate for lower tract injury
  • G9607 — Documented medical reasons for not performing intraoperative cystoscopy (e.g., urethral pathology precluding cystoscopy, any patient who has a congenital or acquired absence of the urethra) or in the case of patient death
  • G9608 — Intraoperative cystoscopy not performed to evaluate for lower tract injury
  • G9609 — Documentation of an order for anti-platelet agents
  • G9610 — Documentation of medical reason(s) in the patient's record for not ordering anti-platelet agents
  • G9611 — Order for anti-platelet agents was not documented in the patient's record, reason not given
  • G9612 — Photodocumentation of two or more cecal landmarks to establish a complete examination
  • G9613 — Documentation of post-surgical anatomy (e.g., right hemicolectomy, ileocecal resection, etc.)
  • G9614 — Photodocumentation of less than two cecal landmarks (i.e., no cecal landmarks or only one cecal landmark) to establish a complete examination
  • G9615 — Preoperative assessment documented
  • G9616 — Documentation of reason(s) for not documenting a preoperative assessment (e.g., patient with a gynecologic or other pelvic malignancy noted at the time of surgery)
  • G9617 — Preoperative assessment not documented, reason not given
  • G9618 — Documentation of screening for uterine malignancy or those that had an ultrasound and/or endometrial sampling of any kind
  • G9619 — Documentation of reason(s) for not screening for uterine malignancy (e.g., prior hysterectomy)
  • G9620 — Patient not screened for uterine malignancy, or those that have not had an ultrasound and/or endometrial sampling of any kind, reason not given
  • G9621 — Patient identified as an unhealthy alcohol user when screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method and received brief counseling
  • G9622 — Patient not identified as an unhealthy alcohol user when screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method
  • G9623 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not screening for unhealthy alcohol use (e.g., limited life expectancy, other medical reasons)
  • G9624 — Patient not screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method or patient did not receive brief counseling if identified as an unhealthy alcohol user
  • G9625 — Patient sustained bladder injury at the time of surgery or discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery
  • G9626 — Documented medical reason for not reporting bladder injury (e.g., gynecologic or other pelvic malignancy documented, concurrent surgery involving bladder pathology, injury that occurs during a urinary incontinence procedure, patient death from non-medical causes not related to surgery, patient died during procedure without evidence of bladder injury)
  • G9627 — Patient did not sustain bladder injury at the time of surgery nor discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery
  • G9628 — Patient sustained bowel injury at the time of surgery or discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery
  • G9629 — Documented medical reasons for not reporting bowel injury (e.g., gynecologic or other pelvic malignancy documented, planned (e.g., not due to an unexpected bowel injury) resection and/or re-anastomosis of bowel, or patient death from non-medical causes not related to surgery, patient died during procedure without evidence of bowel injury)
  • G9630 — Patient did not sustain a bowel injury at the time of surgery nor discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery
  • G9631 — Patient sustained ureter injury at the time of surgery or discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery
  • G9632 — Documented medical reasons for not reporting ureter injury (e.g., gynecologic or other pelvic malignancy documented, concurrent surgery involving bladder pathology, injury that occurs during a urinary incontinence procedure, patient death from non-medical causes not related to surgery, patient died during procedure without evidence of ureter injury)
  • G9633 — Patient did not sustain ureter injury at the time of surgery nor discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery
  • G9634 — Health-related quality of life assessed with tool during at least two visits and quality of life score remained the same or improved
  • G9635 — Health-related quality of life not assessed with tool for documented reason(s) (e.g., patient has a cognitive or neuropsychiatric impairment that impairs his/her ability to complete the hrqol survey, patient has the inability to read and/or write in order to complete the hrqol questionnaire)
  • G9636 — Health-related quality of life not assessed with tool during at least two visits or quality of life score declined
  • G9637 — Final reports with documentation of one or more dose reduction techniques (e.g., automated exposure control, adjustment of the ma and/or kv according to patient size, use of iterative reconstruction technique)
  • G9638 — Final reports without documentation of one or more dose reduction techniques (e.g., automated exposure control, adjustment of the ma and/or kv according to patient size, use of iterative reconstruction technique)
  • G9639 — Major amputation or open surgical bypass not required within 48 hours of the index endovascular lower extremity revascularization procedure
  • G9640 — Documentation of planned hybrid or staged procedure
  • G9641 — Major amputation or open surgical bypass required within 48 hours of the index endovascular lower extremity revascularization procedure
  • G9642 — Current smoker (e.g., cigarette, cigar, pipe, e-cigarette or marijuana)
  • G9643 — Elective surgery
  • G9644 — Patients who abstained from smoking prior to anesthesia on the day of surgery or procedure
  • G9645 — Patients who did not abstain from smoking prior to anesthesia on the day of surgery or procedure
  • G9646 — Patients with 90 day mrs score of 0 to 2
  • G9647 — Patients in whom mrs score could not be obtained at 90 day follow-up
  • G9648 — Patients with 90 day mrs score greater than 2
  • G9649 — Psoriasis assessment tool documented meeting any one of the specified benchmarks (e.g., (pga; 5-point or 6-point scale), body surface area (bsa), psoriasis area and severity index (pasi) and/or dermatology life quality index) (dlqi))
  • G9650 — Documentation that the patient declined therapy change or has documented contraindications (e.g., experienced adverse effects or lack of efficacy with all other therapy options) in order to achieve better disease control as measured by pga, bsa, pasi, or dlqi
  • G9651 — Psoriasis assessment tool documented not meeting any one of the specified benchmarks (e.g., (pga; 5-point or 6-point scale), body surface area (bsa), psoriasis area and severity index (pasi) and/or dermatology life quality index) (dlqi)) or psoriasis assessment tool not documented
  • G9652 — Patient has been treated with a systemic or biologic medication for psoriasis for at least six months
  • G9653 — Patient has not been treated with a systemic or biologic medication for psoriasis for at least six months
  • G9654 — Monitored anesthesia care (mac)
  • G9655 — A transfer of care protocol or handoff tool/checklist that includes the required key handoff elements is used
  • G9656 — Patient transferred directly from anesthetizing location to pacu or other non-icu location
  • G9657 — Transfer of care during an anesthetic or to the intensive care unit
  • G9658 — A transfer of care protocol or handoff tool/checklist that includes the required key handoff elements is not used
  • G9659 — Patients greater than or equal to 86 years of age who underwent a screening colonoscopy and did not have a history of colorectal cancer or other valid medical reason for the colonoscopy, including: iron deficiency anemia, lower gastrointestinal bleeding, familial adenomatous polyposis, lynch syndrome (i.e., hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer), inflammatory bowel disease (i.e., crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis), abnormal finding of gastrointestinal tract, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits
  • G9660 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for a colonoscopy performed on a patient greater than or equal to 86 years of age (e.g., iron deficiency anemia, lower gastrointestinal bleeding, familial history of adenomatous polyposis, lynch syndrome (i.e., hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer), inflammatory bowel disease (i.e., crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis), abnormal finding of gastrointestinal tract, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits)
  • G9661 — Patients greater than or equal to 86 years of age who received a colonoscopy for an assessment of signs/symptoms of gi tract illness, and/or because the patient meets high risk criteria, and/or to follow-up on previously diagnosed advanced lesions
  • G9662 — Previously diagnosed or have a diagnosis of clinical ascvd, including ascvd procedure
  • G9663 — Any ldl-c laboratory result >= 190 mg/dl
  • G9664 — Patients who are currently statin therapy users or received an order (prescription) for statin therapy
  • G9665 — Patients who are not currently statin therapy users or did not receive an order (prescription) for statin therapy
  • G9666 — Patient's highest fasting or direct ldl-c laboratory test result in the measurement period or two years prior to the beginning of the measurement period is 70-189 mg/dl
  • G9667 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not currently being a statin therapy user or receive an order (prescription) for statin therapy (e.g., patient with adverse effect, allergy or intolerance to statin medication therapy, patients who have an active diagnosis of pregnancy or who are breastfeeding, patients who are receiving palliative care, patients with active liver disease or hepatic disease or insufficiency, patients with end stage renal disease (esrd), and patients with diabetes who have a fasting or direct ldl-c laboratory test result < 70 mg/dl and are not taking statin therapy)
  • G9669 — I intend to report the multiple chronic conditions measures group
  • G9670 — All quality actions for the applicable measures in the multiple chronic conditions measures group have been performed for this patient
  • G9671 — I intend to report the diabetic retinopathy measures group
  • G9672 — All quality actions for the applicable measures in the diabetic retinopathy measures group have been performed for this patient
  • G9673 — I intend to report the cardiovascular prevention measures group
  • G9674 — Patients with clinical ascvd diagnosis
  • G9675 — Patients who have ever had a fasting or direct laboratory result of ldl-c = 190 mg/dl
  • G9676 — Patients aged 40 to 75 years at the beginning of the measurement period with type 1 or type 2 diabetes and with an ldl-c result of 70-189 mg/dl recorded as the highest fasting or direct laboratory test result in the measurement year or during the two years prior to the beginning of the measurement period
  • G9677 — All quality actions for the applicable measures in the cardiovascular prevention measures group have been performed for this patient
  • J0202 — Injection, alemtuzumab, 1 mg
  • J0596 — Injection, c1 esterase inhibitor (recombinant), ruconest, 10 units
  • J0695 — Injection, ceftolozane 50 mg and tazobactam 25 mg
  • J0714 — Injection, ceftazidime and avibactam, 0.5 g/0.125 g
  • J0875 — Injection, dalbavancin, 5 mg
  • J1443 — Injection, ferric pyrophosphate citrate solution (triferic), 0.1 mg of iron
  • J1447 — Injection, tbo-filgrastim, 1 microgram
  • J1575 — Injection, immune globulin/hyaluronidase, (hyqvia), 100 mg immuneglobulin
  • J1833 — Injection, isavuconazonium, 1 mg
  • J2407 — Injection, oritavancin (orbactiv), 10 mg
  • J2502 — Injection, pasireotide long acting, 1 mg
  • J2547 — Injection, peramivir, 1 mg
  • J2860 — Injection, siltuximab, 10 mg
  • J3090 — Injection, tedizolid phosphate, 1 mg
  • J3380 — Injection, vedolizumab, intravenous, 1 mg
  • J7121 — 5% dextrose in lactated ringers infusion, up to 1000 cc
  • J7188 — Injection, factor viii (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), (obizur), per i.u.
  • J7205 — Injection, factor viii fc fusion protein (recombinant), per iu
  • J7297 — Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system (liletta), 52 mg
  • J7298 — Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system (mirena), 52 mg
  • J7313 — Injection, fluocinolone acetonide, intravitreal implant (iluvien), 0.01 mg
  • J7328 — Hyaluronan or derivative, gelsyn-3, for intra-articular injection, 0.1 mg
  • J7340 — Carbidopa 5 mg/levodopa 20 mg enteral suspension, 100 ml
  • J7503 — Tacrolimus, extended release, (envarsus xr), oral, 0.25 mg
  • J7512 — Prednisone, immediate release or delayed release, oral, 1 mg
  • J7999 — Compounded drug, not otherwise classified
  • J8655 — Netupitant 300 mg and palonosetron 0.5 mg, oral
  • J9032 — Injection, belinostat, 10 mg
  • J9039 — Injection, blinatumomab, 1 microgram
  • J9271 — Injection, pembrolizumab, 1 mg
  • J9299 — Injection, nivolumab, 1 mg
  • J9308 — Injection, ramucirumab, 5 mg
  • L8607 — Injectable bulking agent for vocal cord medialization, 0.1 ml, includes shipping and necessary supplies
  • P9070 — Plasma, pooled multiple donor, pathogen reduced, frozen, each unit
  • P9071 — Plasma (single donor), pathogen reduced, frozen, each unit
  • P9072 — Platelets, pheresis, pathogen reduced or rapid bacterial tested, each unit
  • Q4161 — Bio-connekt wound matrix, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
  • Q4162 — Woundex flow, bioskin flow, 0.5 cc
  • Q4163 — Woundex, bioskin, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
  • Q4164 — Helicoll, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
  • Q4165 — Keramatrix or kerasorb, per square centimeter (add-on, list separately in addition to primary procedure)
  • Q9950 — Injection, sulfur hexafluoride lipid microspheres, per ml
  • Q9980 — Hyaluronan or derivative, genvisc 850, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg

Deleted effective January 1, 2016 (110)

  • A7011 — Corrugated tubing, non-disposable, used with large volume nebulizer, 10 feet
  • C9025 — Injection, ramucirumab, 5 mg
  • C9026 — Injection, vedolizumab, 1 mg
  • C9027 — Injection, pembrolizumab, 1 mg
  • C9442 — Injection, belinostat, 10 mg
  • C9443 — Injection, dalbavancin, 10 mg
  • C9444 — Injection, oritavancin, 10 mg
  • C9445 — Injection, c-1 esterase inhibitor (recombinant), ruconest, 10 units
  • C9446 — Injection, tedizolid phosphate, 1 mg
  • C9449 — Injection, blinatumomab, 1 mcg
  • C9450 — Injection, fluocinolone acetonide intravitreal implant, 0.01 mg
  • C9451 — Injection, peramivir, 1 mg
  • C9452 — Injection, ceftolozane 50 mg and tazobactam 25 mg
  • C9453 — Injection, nivolumab, 1 mg
  • C9454 — Injection, pasireotide long acting, 1 mg
  • C9455 — Injection, siltuximab, 10 mg
  • C9456 — Injection, isavuconazonium sulfate, 1 mg
  • C9457 — Injection, sulfur hexafluoride lipid microsphere, per ml
  • C9724 — Endoscopic full-thickness plication of the stomach using endoscopic plication system (eps); includes endoscopy
  • E0450 — Volume control ventilator, without pressure support mode, may include pressure control mode, used with invasive interface (e.g., tracheostomy tube)
  • E0460 — Negative pressure ventilator; portable or stationary
  • E0461 — Volume control ventilator, without pressure support mode, may include pressure control mode, used with non-invasive interface (e.g., mask)
  • E0463 — Pressure support ventilator with volume control mode, may include pressure control mode, used with invasive interface (e.g., tracheostomy tube)
  • E0464 — Pressure support ventilator with volume control mode, may include pressure control mode, used with non-invasive interface (e.g., mask)
  • G0431 — Drug screen, qualitative; multiple drug classes by high complexity test method (e.g., immunoassay, enzyme assay), per patient encounter
  • G0434 — Drug screen, other than chromatographic; any number of drug classes, by clia waived test or moderate complexity test, per patient encounter
  • G0464 — Colorectal cancer screening; stool-based dna and fecal occult hemoglobin (e.g., kras, ndrg4 and bmp3)
  • G6018 — Ileoscopy, through stoma; with transendoscopic stent placement (includes predilation)
  • G6019 — Colonoscopy through stoma; with ablation of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s) not amenable to removal by hot biopsy forceps, bipolar cautery or snare technique
  • G6020 — Colonoscopy through stoma; with transendoscopic stent placement (includes predilation)
  • G6021 — Unlisted procedure, intestine
  • G6022 — Sigmoidoscopy, flexible; with ablation of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesions(s) not amenable to removal by hot biopsy forceps, bipolar cautery or snare technique
  • G6023 — Sigmoidoscopy, flexible; with transendoscopic stent placement (includes predilation)
  • G6024 — Colonoscopy, flexible; proximal to splenic flexure; with ablation of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s) not amenable to removal by hot biopsy forceps, bipolar cautery or snare technique
  • G6025 — Colonoscopy, flexible, proximal to splenic flexure; with transendoscopic stent placement (includes predilation)
  • G6027 — Anoscopy, high resolution (hra) (with magnification and chemical agent enhancement); diagnostic, including collection of specimen(s) by brushing or washing when performed
  • G6028 — Anoscopy, high resolution (hra) (with magnification and chemical agent enhancement); with biopsy(ies)
  • G6030 — Amitriptyline
  • G6031 — Benzodiazepines
  • G6032 — Desipramine
  • G6034 — Doxepin
  • G6035 — Gold
  • G6036 — Assay of imipramine
  • G6037 — Nortriptyline
  • G6038 — Salicylate
  • G6039 — Acetaminophen
  • G6040 — Alcohol (ethanol); any specimen except breath
  • G6041 — Alkaloids, urine, quantitative
  • G6042 — Amphetamine or methamphetamine
  • G6043 — Barbiturates, not elsewhere specified
  • G6044 — Cocaine or metabolite
  • G6045 — Dihydrocodeinone
  • G6046 — Dihydromorphinone
  • G6047 — Dihydrotestosterone
  • G6048 — Dimethadione
  • G6049 — Epiandrosterone
  • G6050 — Ethchlorvynol
  • G6051 — Flurazepam
  • G6052 — Meprobamate
  • G6053 — Methadone
  • G6054 — Methsuximide
  • G6055 — Nicotine
  • G6056 — Opiate(s), drug and metabolites, each procedure
  • G6057 — Phenothiazine
  • G6058 — Drug confirmation, each procedure
  • G8530 — Autogenous av fistula received
  • G8531 — Clinician documented that patient was not an eligible candidate for autogenous av fistula
  • G8532 — Clinician documented that patient received vascular access other than autogenous av fistula, reason not given
  • G8713 — Spkt/v greater than or equal to 1.2 (single-pool clearance of urea [kt] / volume [v])
  • G8714 — Hemodialysis treatment performed exactly three times per week for > 90 days
  • G8717 — Spkt/v less than 1.2 (single-pool clearance of urea [kt] / volume [v]), reason not given
  • G8718 — Total kt/v greater than or equal to 1.7 per week (total clearance of urea [kt] / volume [v])
  • G8720 — Total kt/v less than 1.7 per week (total clearance of urea [kt] / volume [v])
  • G8870 — Hepatitis b vaccine injection administered or previously received and is receiving a first course of anti-tnf therapy
  • G8871 — Patient not receiving a first course of anti-tnf therapy
  • G8951 — Pre-hypertensive or hypertensive blood pressure reading documented, indicated follow-up not documented, documentation the patient is not eligible
  • G9320 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not naming ct studies according to a standardized nomenclature provided (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
  • G9323 — Documentation of medical reason(s) for not counting previous ct and cardiac nuclear medicine (myocardial perfusion) studies (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
  • G9325 — Ct studies not reported to a radiation dose index registry due to medical reasons (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
  • G9328 — Dicom format image data availability not documented in final report due to medical reasons (eg, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
  • G9343 — Due to medical reasons, search not conducted for dicom format images for prior patient ct imaging studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12 months that are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive (e.g., ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
  • G9346 — Follow-up recommendations not documented according to recommended guidelines for incidentally detected pulmonary nodules due to medical reasons (e.g., patients with known malignant disease, patients with unexplained fever, ct studies performed for radiation treatment planning or image-guided radiation treatment delivery)
  • G9362 — Duration of monitored anesthesia care (mac) or peripheral nerve block (pnb) without the use of general anesthesia during an applicable procedure 60 minutes or longer, as documented in the anesthesia record
  • G9363 — Duration of monitored anesthesia care (mac) or peripheral nerve block (pnb) without the use of general anesthesia during an applicable procedure or general or neuraxial anesthesia less than 60 minutes, as documented in the anesthesia record
  • G9369 — Individual filled at least two prescriptions for any antipsychotic medication and had a pdc of 0.8 or greater
  • G9370 — Individual who did not fill at least two prescriptions for any antipsychotic medication or did not have a pdc of 0.8 or greater
  • G9376 — Patient continued to have the retina attached at the 6 months follow up visit (+/- 1 month) following only one surgery
  • G9377 — Patient did not have the retina attached after 6 months following only one surgery
  • G9378 — Patient continued to have the retina attached at the 6 months follow up visit (+/- 1 month)
  • G9379 — Patient did not achieve flat retinas six months post surgery
  • G9391 — Patient achieves refraction +-1 d for the eye that underwent cataract surgery, measured at the one month follow up visit
  • G9392 — Patient does not achieve refraction +-1 d for the eye that underwent cataract surgery, measured at the one month follow up visit
  • G9433 — Death, permanent nursing home resident or receiving hospice or palliative care any time during the measurement period
  • J0886 — Injection, epoetin alfa, 1000 units (for esrd on dialysis)
  • J1446 — Injection, tbo-filgrastim, 5 micrograms
  • J7302 — Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system, 52 mg
  • J7506 — Prednisone, oral, per 5 mg
  • J9010 — Injection, alemtuzumab, 10 mg
  • Q9975 — Injection, factor viii fc fusion protein (recombinant), per iu
  • Q9976 — Injection, ferric pyrophosphate citrate solution, 0.1 mg of iron
  • Q9977 — Compounded drug, not otherwise classified
  • Q9978 — Netupitant 300 mg and palonosetron 0.5 mg
  • Q9979 — Injection, alemtuzumab, 1 mg
  • S0195 — Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, polyvalent, intramuscular, for children from five years to nine years of age who have not previously received the vaccine
  • S2360 — Percutaneous vertebroplasty, one vertebral body, unilateral or bilateral injection; cervical
  • S2361 — Each additional cervical vertebral body (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)
  • S3721 — Prostate cancer antigen 3 (pca3) testing
  • S3890 — Dna analysis, fecal, for colorectal cancer screening
  • S5011 — 5% dextrose in lactated ringer's, 1000 ml
  • S9015 — Automated eeg monitoring

Deleted effective March 1, 2016 (1)

  • G0154 — Direct skilled nursing services of a licensed nurse (lpn or rn) in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes

Added effective April 1, 2016 (21)

  • C9137 — Injection, factor viii (antihemophilic factor, recombinant) pegylated, 1 i.u.
  • C9138 — Injection, factor viii (antihemophilic factor, recombinant) (nuwiq), 1 i.u.
  • C9461 — Choline c 11, diagnostic, per study dose
  • C9470 — Injection, aripiprazole lauroxil, 1 mg
  • C9471 — Hyaluronan or derivative, hymovis, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg
  • C9472 — Injection, talimogene laherparepvec, 1 million plaque forming units (pfu)
  • C9473 — Injection, mepolizumab, 1 mg
  • C9474 — Injection, irinotecan liposome, 1 mg
  • C9475 — Injection, necitumumab, 1 mg
  • G0490 — Face-to-face home health nursing visit by a rural health clinic (rhc) or federally qualified health center (fqhc) in an area with a shortage of home health agencies; (services limited to rn or lpn only)
  • G9481 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a problem focused history; a problem focused examination; and straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are self limited or minor. typically, 10 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9482 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: an expanded problem focused history; an expanded problem focused examination; straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of low to moderate severity. typically, 20 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9483 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a detailed history; a detailed examination; medical decision making of low complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate severity. typically, 30 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9484 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a comprehensive history; a comprehensive examination; medical decision making of moderate complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 45 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9485 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a comprehensive history; a comprehensive examination; medical decision making of high complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 60 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9486 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a problem focused history; a problem focused examination; straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are self limited or minor. typically, 10 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9487 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: an expanded problem focused history; an expanded problem focused examination; medical decision making of low complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of low to moderate severity. typically, 15 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9488 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a detailed history; a detailed examination; medical decision making of moderate complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 25 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9489 — Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved coms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a comprehensive history; a comprehensive examination; medical decision making of high complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 40 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology
  • G9490 — Cms innovation center models, home visit for patient assessment performed by clinical staff for an individual not considered homebound, including, but not necessarily limited to patient assessment of clinical status, safety/fall prevention, functional status/ambulation, medication reconciliation/management, compliance with orders/plan of care, performance of activities of daily living, and ensuring beneficiary connections to community and other services. (for use only in medicare-approved cms innovation center models); may not be billed for a 30 day period covered by a transitional care management code
  • G9678 — Oncology care model (ocm) monthly enhanced oncology services (meos) payment for ocm enhanced services. g9678 payments may only be made to ocm practitioners for ocm beneficiaries for the furnishment of enhanced services as defined in the ocm participation agreement

Added effective July 1, 2016 (11)

  • C9476 — Injection, daratumumab, 10 mg
  • C9477 — Injection, elotuzumab, 1 mg
  • C9478 — Injection, sebelipase alfa, 1 mg
  • C9479 — Instillation, ciprofloxacin otic suspension, 6 mg
  • C9480 — Injection, trabectedin, 0.1 mg
  • Q5102 — Injection, infliximab, biosimilar, 10 mg
  • Q9981 — Rolapitant, oral, 1 mg
  • Q9982 — Flutemetamol f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 5 millicuries
  • Q9983 — Florbetaben f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 8.1 millicuries
  • S0285 — Colonoscopy consultation performed prior to a screening colonoscopy procedure
  • S0311 — Comprehensive management and care coordination for advanced illness, per calendar month

Deleted effective July 1, 2016 (3)

  • C9458 — Florbetaben f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 8.1 millicuries
  • C9459 — Flutemetamol f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 5 millicuries
  • C9743 — Injection/implantation of bulking or spacer material (any type) with or without image guidance (not to be used if a more specific code applies)

Added effective September 28, 2016 (1)

  • G0499 — Hepatitis b screening in non-pregnant, high risk individual includes hepatitis b surface antigen (hbsag), antibodies to hbsag (anti-hbs) and antibodies to hepatitis b core antigen (anti-hbc), and is followed by a neutralizing confirmatory test, when performed, only for an initially reactive hbsag result

Added effective October 1, 2016 (13)

  • C9139 — Injection, factor ix, albumin fusion protein (recombinant), idelvion, 1 i.u.
  • C9481 — Injection, reslizumab, 1 mg
  • C9482 — Injection, sotalol hydrochloride, 1 mg
  • C9483 — Injection, atezolizumab, 10 mg
  • C9744 — Ultrasound, abdominal, with contrast
  • G9679 — This code is for onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident with pneumonia; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary
  • G9680 — This code is for onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident with chf; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary
  • G9681 — This code is for onsite acute care treatment of a resident with copd or asthma; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary
  • G9682 — This code is for the onsite acute care treatment a nursing facility resident with a skin infection; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary
  • G9683 — Facility service(s) for the onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident with fluid or electrolyte disorder. (may only be billed once per day per beneficiary). this service is for a demonstration project
  • G9684 — This code is for the onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident for a uti; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary
  • G9685 — Physician service or other qualified health care professional for the evaluation and management of a beneficiary's acute change in condition in a nursing facility. this service is for a demonstration project
  • G9686 — Onsite nursing facility conference, that is separate and distinct from an evaluation and management visit, including qualified practitioner and at least one member of the nursing facility interdisciplinary care team

Deleted effective October 1, 2016 (3)

  • G0436 — Smoking and tobacco cessation counseling visit for the asymptomatic patient; intermediate, greater than 3 minutes, up to 10 minutes
  • G0437 — Smoking and tobacco cessation counseling visit for the asymptomatic patient; intensive, greater than 10 minutes
  • S8032 — Low-dose computed tomography for lung cancer screening

Source: CMS HCPCS Level II alpha-numeric file (add and termination dates).

Source data

Source organization
CMS
Source release
HCPCS Level II October 2026 alpha-numeric file
Source file
october-2026-alpha-numeric-hcpcs-file.zip
File checksum (SHA-256)
c25240c63108756d4ba6c0ea785c517117d83bfed9526c51da8acf123de1feb6
Data read date
Data not available in the current MedCoder release record.
Effective date
CMS effective dates within 2016
Release type
Quarterly (January, April, July, October), with occasional mid-quarter additions
Methodology
Each code's add date and termination date are read from the alpha-numeric file. A deletion is dated the first day the code is no longer valid, the day after its termination date. Description revisions are not recorded as changes.

These changes are based on recorded release data. MedCoder does not generate coding changes with AI.

All releases in the Change Ledger